Bihar STET 2023 Computer Science Shift 1 Question Paper (With Answers & Explanations)

Question 1
What is the simplified expression for the Boolean function F(A, B, C, D) = Σ(0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14) using the K-map method?
  • (A) A’B’C’D’ + A’B’C’D + A’BC’D + AB’C’D + ABCD
  • (B) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D + AB’C’D + ABC’D + ABCD
  • (C) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D + ABC’D + ABCD
  • (D) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D’ + A’BCD + ABCD
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
✅ K-map grouping of minterms leads to five simplified product terms. ✅ Option (A) correctly represents all minimized groups from the K-map. ✅ The function cannot be further reduced without losing coverage.
Question 2
In a PLA, what components are used to implement the combinational logic functions?
  • (A) AND gates and OR gates
  • (B) NAND gates and XOR gates
  • (C) NOR gates and XNOR gates
  • (D) NOT gates and multiplexers
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
A Programmable Logic Array has a programmable AND array followed by a programmable OR array. Product terms are formed in the AND plane and summed in the OR plane to realize SOP functions. This architecture lets you implement multiple outputs sharing common product terms efficiently.
Question 3
Which register temporarily holds data during arithmetic and logical operations in a microprocessor?
  • (A) Shift register
  • (B) Parallel register
  • (C) Accumulator register
  • (D) Counter register
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
The accumulator stores one operand and the intermediate/final result of ALU operations. Most single-address instruction sets implicitly use the accumulator. This reduces instruction bits and speeds repetitive arithmetic/logic sequences.
Question 4
Which logic family uses both depletion and enhancement mode MOSFETs?
  • (A) TTL
  • (B) ECL
  • (C) PMOS
  • (D) CMOS
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
CMOS technology combines complementary enhancement MOSFETs (nMOS & pMOS). Depletion devices can be used as loads/biasing elements in some CMOS processes. CMOS offers low static power, high noise margins, and dense VLSI integration.
Question 5
What is the primary difference between ROM and RAM?
  • (A) ROM is faster than RAM
  • (B) ROM is volatile, while RAM is non-volatile
  • (C) ROM is used for data storage, while RAM is used for program execution
  • (D) ROM stores permanent data that cannot be changed, while RAM stores temporary data that can be read and written
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
ROM retains data without power and holds firmware/boot code; typical users cannot alter it at runtime. RAM is volatile working memory used by the CPU for active data and instructions. Hence ROM = permanent (non-volatile), RAM = temporary (volatile read-write).
Question 6
Given F(A,B,C)=Σ(0,1,2,3,5), what is the SOP expression?
  • (A) A’B’ + AB’ + AB + AC
  • (B) A + B + C
  • (C) AB’ + C’
  • (D) A’B’C’
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
The minterms correspond to cells where F=1; grouping via K-map yields simplified SOP. Combining common implicants leads to A’B’ + AB’ + AB + AC. This expression covers all listed minterms with minimal redundancy.
Question 7
Binary sum is 11010 with a carry-out from MSB. What should be done to obtain the correct result?
  • (A) Discard the carry
  • (B) Add the carry to the least significant bit (LSB)
  • (C) Add the carry to the most significant bit (MSB)
  • (D) Subtract the carry from the MSB
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
In end-around carry methods (e.g., some 1’s-complement schemes), carry-out is added back to LSB. This produces the correct wrapped sum when using that arithmetic. Discarding the carry is used in standard unsigned binary; here LSB addition is specified.
Question 8
In binary multiplication (simple method), first step after alignment?
  • (A) Multiply the LSB by the multiplier
  • (B) Multiply the MSB by the multiplier
  • (C) Multiply the LSB by the multiplicand
  • (D) Multiply the MSB by the multiplicand
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
The process mirrors long multiplication: start with the multiplier’s LSB and generate a partial product. Shift left for each higher bit and add partial products. This ensures correct positional weighting of each bit’s contribution.
Question 9
In Hamming Code, how does distance between parity bits relate to error capability?
  • (A) Closer parity bits → higher error correction capability
  • (B) Closer parity bits → lower error correction capability
  • (C) No impact
  • (D) Parity bit positions are irrelevant
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Hamming codes position parity bits at powers of two to cover disjoint sets. Greater separation and proper coverage improve detect/correct abilities. If parity bits are “closer” (overlapping poorly), correction capability is reduced.
Question 10
To convert Gray code to Binary, which technique is commonly used?
  • (A) Subtraction method
  • (B) Addition method
  • (C) Exclusive OR (XOR) operation
  • (D) Division method
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Gray→Binary conversion uses cumulative XOR: keep MSB same, then XOR each next Gray bit with previous Binary bit. This property follows from Gray code’s 1-bit adjacency. The XOR chain efficiently reconstructs the binary sequence.
Question 11
Which component of an ideal microcomputer temporarily holds data/instructions during processing?
  • (A) CPU
  • (B) ALU
  • (C) Memory
  • (D) Output devices
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Main memory (RAM) stores active instructions and data for the CPU. The ALU executes operations; CPU orchestrates fetch-decode-execute; I/O handles peripherals. Volatile RAM enables fast, random access needed for processing.
Question 12
How is the width of the data bus typically measured?
  • (A) Kilobytes (KB)
  • (B) Megahertz (MHz)
  • (C) Bits
  • (D) Address lines
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Data bus width equals the number of bits transferable in parallel per cycle. Wider buses allow moving larger words (e.g., 32/64-bit). Address bus width, not asked here, determines addressable memory space.
Question 13
Typical microcontroller application in automotive industry?
  • (A) Operating systems for computers
  • (B) Entertainment systems in airplanes
  • (C) Engine control in cars
  • (D) Weather forecasting systems
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
ECUs use microcontrollers to manage ignition, fuel injection, and sensors. Real-time control, low power, and integrated peripherals suit automotive needs. Many subsystems (ABS, airbags) also rely on MCUs.
Question 14
Which data structure often trades extra memory for faster operations?
  • (A) Arrays
  • (B) Linked lists
  • (C) Hash tables
  • (D) Stacks
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Hash tables allocate buckets and manage collisions (e.g., chaining/probing). With good hashing, average search/insert/delete is O(1). The extra bucket overhead yields speed gains on average cases.
Question 15
Which term describes balancing resource use by sacrificing one aspect for another?
  • (A) Greedy algorithm
  • (B) Divide and conquer
  • (C) Dynamic programming
  • (D) Tradeoff
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
A tradeoff explicitly balances competing factors (e.g., time vs space). Algorithm design often optimizes one metric at the cost of another. Recognizing tradeoffs guides practical, context-aware solutions.
Question 16
Conditional asymptotic notation is useful when:
  • (A) Analyzing constant time algorithms
  • (B) Input size is fixed
  • (C) Input data is random
  • (D) Behavior varies with specific input characteristics
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
Some algorithms perform differently on “structured” vs “arbitrary” inputs. Conditional notation captures performance under stated assumptions. It communicates realistic bounds beyond worst-case O(·).
Question 17
If an algorithm is bounded by “o(f(n)) if g(n)”, removing the condition yields:
  • (A) o(f(n))
  • (B) o(g(n))
  • (C) o(f(n) + g(n))
  • (D) o(f(n) * g(n))
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
The conditional little-o bound reduces to the same little-o without the guard. Little-o means strictly smaller order than f(n) as n→∞. Thus, the unconditional expression is simply o(f(n)).
Question 18
T(n) = T(n/2) + 1 corresponds to which paradigm?
  • (A) Divide and Conquer
  • (B) Greedy
  • (C) Dynamic Programming
  • (D) Brute Force
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
The recurrence halves the problem size each step with O(1) combine cost. This pattern is classic Divide-and-Conquer (e.g., binary search). Solution is O(log n) by expanding levels or Master Theorem.
Question 19
Divide and Conquer solves problems by:
  • (A) Iteratively solving subproblems
  • (B) Recursively solving subproblems
  • (C) Using heuristics
  • (D) Greedily combining solutions
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Problems are split into subproblems, solved recursively, then merged. Examples include merge sort, quicksort, and FFT. Recursion captures the repeated structure elegantly.
Question 20
A threaded binary tree is a tree where:
  • (A) Each node has two children
  • (B) Each node has at most one child
  • (C) Each node is connected to its parent
  • (D) Each node has a thread to its predecessor or successor
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
Threads replace null pointers with links to inorder predecessor/successor. This enables traversal without recursion or stacks. It reduces overhead while preserving binary tree structure.
Question 21
Which traversal algorithm is typically implemented with a stack?
  • (A) DFS
  • (B) BFS
  • (C) Both
  • (D) Neither
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
DFS uses a stack (explicit or via recursion) to backtrack. BFS relies on a queue to explore level by level. Stack-based DFS is natural for path exploration.
Question 22
In a directed graph, edge from A to B is denoted as:
  • (A) (A, B)
  • (B) [A, B]
  • (C) <A, B>
  • (D) {A, B}
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Ordered pair (A,B) indicates a directed arc from A to B. Unordered sets like {A,B} represent undirected edges. Ordered notation matters for directionality.
Question 23
Separate chaining handles collisions by storing collided items in:
  • (A) Linked lists
  • (B) Arrays
  • (C) Stacks
  • (D) Queues
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Each bucket maintains a linked list (or similar structure) of entries. This allows O(1) average insert and flexible growth. Memory overhead increases but simplifies deletion.
Question 24
Which collision resolution places collided elements in the next empty slot?
  • (A) Linear probing
  • (B) Quadratic probing
  • (C) Separate chaining
  • (D) Double hashing
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Linear probing scans sequential slots until a free one is found. It’s cache-friendly but suffers from primary clustering. Quadratic and double hashing reduce clustering differently.
Question 25
In Tower of Hanoi with n disks, required moves are:
  • (A) n
  • (B) 2n
  • (C) 2^n – 1
  • (D) 2^n
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Recurrence T(n)=2T(n−1)+1 solves to T(n)=2^n−1. Each move splits problem into moving n−1 disks twice around the largest disk. The exponential pattern reflects doubling subproblems plus one move.
Question 26
Removing recursion typically replaces recursive calls with:
  • (A) More recursion
  • (B) Loops
  • (C) Extra memory allocation
  • (D) Non-recursive function calls
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Iterative versions use loops and sometimes an explicit stack. Tail recursion elimination is a classic case converting to a loop. This reduces call overhead and can improve performance.
Question 27
A formal model of protection in an OS provides:
  • (A) Mathematical framework for resource allocation analysis
  • (B) UI design guidelines
  • (C) Memory optimization methods
  • (D) CPU utilization techniques
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Formal models define subjects, objects, and access rights rigorously. They enable verification of safety properties and policies. Bell-LaPadula and Biba are classic examples of such frameworks.
Question 28
In an OS, a “buffer cache” is used to:
  • (A) Store files in memory
  • (B) Store copies of frequently used files in memory
  • (C) Store the OS kernel
  • (D) Store input/output devices
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Buffer cache holds recently accessed disk blocks to reduce I/O latency. It exploits temporal/spatial locality and merges writes. This improves throughput and perceived file system speed.
Question 29
File manipulation operations in an OS include:
  • (A) Allocating memory to files
  • (B) Assigning file names to processes
  • (C) Loading files into CPU registers
  • (D) Reading, writing, and modifying file content
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
Core file ops are create, open, read, write, append, rename, and delete. The OS provides system calls and permissions to manage them. Memory and CPU register handling are separate concerns.
Question 30
The I/O subsystem in an OS is responsible for:
  • (A) Allocating memory for processes
  • (B) Managing the file system
  • (C) Managing I/O operations between processes and I/O devices
  • (D) Allocating CPU time to processes
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
The I/O subsystem abstracts device specifics, schedules requests, and handles drivers. It provides buffered, asynchronous, and interrupt-driven transfers. File systems sit above block I/O; CPU scheduling is separate.
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Question 31
The primary goal of load control is to:
  • (A) Prevent processes from running concurrently
  • (B) Avoid context switching between processes
  • (C) Ensure that CPU time is evenly distributed among processes
  • (D) Maximize the usage of virtual memory
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Load control (admission and degree of multiprogramming) aims to keep the system responsive and fair. By balancing runnable processes, the scheduler can distribute CPU share more evenly. This prevents overload/thrashing and improves overall throughput and user experience.
Question 32
The purpose of a page table in a paging system is to:
  • (A) Store pages of memory
  • (B) Manage input/output operations
  • (C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses
  • (D) Store program instructions
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
The page table maps a process’s virtual page numbers to physical frame numbers. During address translation, the MMU consults this mapping (often via TLB for speed). This indirection enables isolation, protection, and flexible memory allocation.
Question 33
In multiprogramming with fixed partitions, if a process needs more memory than a partition, it may lead to:
  • (A) Fragmentation
  • (B) Deadlock
  • (C) Priority inversion
  • (D) Starvation
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Fixed partitions cause external fragmentation and poor fit when process sizes vary. A process larger than any partition cannot be loaded, wasting space in others. Dynamic schemes (variable partitions, paging) mitigate such fragmentation issues.
Question 34
What is DBMS?
  • (A) DBMS is a collection of queries
  • (B) DBMS is a high-level language
  • (C) DBMS is a programming language
  • (D) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
A Database Management System provides structured storage and controlled access to data. It supports CRUD operations, concurrency, recovery, and integrity constraints. SQL is the language used with a DBMS; the DBMS itself is the software engine.
Question 35
Which of the following is correct according to the technology deployed by DBMS?
  • (A) Pointers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
  • (B) Cursors are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
  • (C) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
  • (D) Triggers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Concurrency control relies on locking (and related protocols) to preserve isolation and consistency. Locks coordinate overlapping reads/writes across transactions to avoid anomalies. Triggers/cursors have other roles; pointers are a low-level notion outside ACID control.
Question 36
The term “NTFS” refers to which one of the following?
  • (A) New Technology File System
  • (B) New Tree File System
  • (C) New Table type File System
  • (D) Both A and C
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
NTFS (New Technology File System) is a modern Windows file system that supports large files, security permissions, encryption, and journaling for reliability. It replaced older FAT systems and is optimized for performance and data protection.
Question 37
Which of the following is a top-down approach where a higher-level entity is divided into lower-level sub-entities?
  • (A) Aggregation
  • (B) Generalization
  • (C) Specialization
  • (D) All of the above
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Specialization is a top-down process where a general entity is divided into more specific sub-entities. For example, the entity “Vehicle” may specialize into “Car” and “Bike.” It is commonly used in database design and object-oriented modeling.
Question 38
The term “DFD” stands for?
  • (A) Data file diagram
  • (B) Data flow document
  • (C) Data flow diagram
  • (D) None of the above
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
A Data Flow Diagram (DFD) visually represents how data moves through a system. It shows inputs, outputs, storage points, and data-processing steps. Widely used in system analysis for understanding process flow.
Question 39
The term “FAT” stands for:
  • (A) File Allocation Tree
  • (B) File Allocation Table
  • (C) File Allocation Graph
  • (D) All of the above
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
FAT (File Allocation Table) is a simple file system structure used by DOS and older Windows systems. It keeps track of which areas of storage are used and which are free. Though outdated now, it was widely used for USB drives and SD cards.
Question 40
The term “Data” refers to:
  • (A) The electronic representation of information
  • (B) Basic information
  • (C) Raw facts and figures
  • (D) Both A and C
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Data refers to raw, unprocessed facts and figures without any context or meaning. When data is processed and interpreted, it becomes information. Thus, raw numeric or textual values are considered data.
Question 41
What is the primary function of routing in the network layer?
  • (A) Data framing
  • (B) Error correction
  • (C) Finding the best path for data
  • (D) Flow control
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Routing determines the optimal path for packets from source to destination. It uses routing tables and algorithms like Dijkstra or Bellman-Ford. This is a core responsibility of the network layer in the OSI model.
Question 42
What is a socket in the context of process-to-process communication?
  • (A) A hardware device for data transmission
  • (B) A software interface for network communication
  • (C) A type of cable used for high-speed data transmission
  • (D) A type of network topology
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
A socket is an endpoint for communication between two processes over a network. It pairs an IP address with a port number for TCP/UDP-based communication. Applications use sockets to send and receive data.
Question 43
Data transmission using multiple pathways simultaneously is known as:
  • (A) Parallel Transmission
  • (B) Serial Transmission
  • (C) Duplex Transmission
  • (D) Half-duplex Transmission
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Parallel transmission sends multiple bits at once over multiple communication lines. It is faster than serial transmission but more expensive and suitable for short distances. Printers historically used parallel ports for this reason.
Question 44
Which of the following is NOT a network topology?
  • (A) Star
  • (B) Ring
  • (C) Disk
  • (D) Mesh
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Star, Ring, and Mesh are valid network topologies. “Disk” is not a recognized topology in networking. Network topology refers to how nodes are physically/logically arranged.
Question 45
Contention-based MAC protocols are commonly used in:
  • (A) Ethernet networks
  • (B) Token Ring networks
  • (C) ATM networks
  • (D) Point-to-Point networks
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Ethernet networks often use CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection). It allows devices to contend for access and detect collisions. This is efficient for broadcast networks with shared media.
Question 46
Routing involves:
  • (A) Dividing data into frames
  • (B) Managing flow control
  • (C) Determining the best path for data packets
  • (D) Correcting errors in data transmission
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Routing selects the most efficient path for forwarding packets across networks. Routers maintain routing tables using algorithms like RIP or OSPF. It is a fundamental role of the network layer in the OSI model.
Question 47
What is the purpose of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
  • (A) To assign IP addresses to devices
  • (B) To resolve domain names to IP addresses
  • (C) To map MAC addresses to IP addresses
  • (D) To manage network congestion
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
ARP converts IP addresses to their corresponding MAC addresses on local networks. It enables devices within a LAN to locate each other at the data link layer. Without ARP, Ethernet-based communication would not be possible.
Question 48
Which software life cycle model allows for iterative development and incorporates risk analysis?
  • (A) Waterfall model
  • (B) Prototype model
  • (C) Spiral model
  • (D) Agile model
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
The Spiral Model combines iterative development with risk analysis in each phase. It is best suited for large, high-risk projects requiring refinement through cycles. Each loop evaluates risks, prototypes solutions, and moves toward completion.
Question 49
What is the main goal of software quality assurance?
  • (A) To eliminate all defects from the software
  • (B) To ensure the software is defect-free before release
  • (C) To establish and enforce standards and processes to improve software quality
  • (D) To test software under different conditions
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
SQA defines procedures and standards ensuring software development follows best practices. It focuses on prevention of defects through robust processes rather than final inspection alone. It builds reliability and customer trust over time.
Question 50
Reverse engineering is primarily used for:
  • (A) Creating new software from scratch
  • (B) Improving software performance
  • (C) Understanding and documenting existing software
  • (D) Testing software components
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Reverse engineering helps understand the internal structure and functionality of existing software. It is often used for documentation, maintenance, and analyzing legacy or competitor systems. This is especially useful when source code is unavailable.
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Question 51
Which testing approach involves testing individual components or units of code?
  • (A) Integration Testing
  • (B) System Testing
  • (C) Unit Testing
  • (D) Acceptance Testing
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Unit testing validates small, isolated pieces of code (functions, classes) in isolation. It enables quick feedback, easier debugging, and supports test-driven development (TDD). Mocks/stubs are often used to isolate external dependencies.
Question 52
What is the main goal of System Testing?
  • (A) Testing individual components in isolation
  • (B) Testing the integration between components
  • (C) Testing software functionality from the user’s perspective
  • (D) Identifying defects in source code
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
System testing evaluates the complete, integrated system against requirements. It examines end-to-end flows, environment behavior, and non-functionals. This stage simulates real-world usage before acceptance testing.
Question 53
Which metric is used for estimating the size of a software project?
  • (A) Cyclomatic Complexity
  • (B) Function Points (FP)
  • (C) Defect Density
  • (D) Software Reliability Index
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Function Point Analysis estimates size by quantifying features (inputs, outputs, files, interfaces). It’s technology-agnostic and useful for cost, effort, and schedule estimation. It complements models like COCOMO for planning.
Question 54
What is the purpose of staffing level estimation in software project management?
  • (A) Determine number of hardware components required
  • (B) Identify potential risks in the project
  • (C) Allocate appropriate resources to the project
  • (D) Estimate software maintenance costs
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Staffing models (e.g., Putnam-Norden-Rayleigh) relate manpower over time to project dynamics. While the question’s keying emphasizes risk focus, realistically staffing also supports resource allocation. Proper estimation mitigates schedule risk and boosts delivery confidence.
Question 55
Which keyword is used to create an instance of a class in most programming languages?
  • (A) alloc
  • (B) new
  • (C) create
  • (D) instance
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Many OOP languages (Java, C#, C++) use new to allocate and initialize objects. Some languages differ (e.g., Python calls the class, Go uses make/new), but for this context, new is standard. It binds memory allocation with constructor invocation.
Question 56
What is an abstract class in OOP?
  • (A) A class with no methods
  • (B) A class that cannot be instantiated
  • (C) A class that can only have private members
  • (D) A class that cannot have methods with parameters
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
An abstract class defines a common template (often with abstract methods) and cannot be directly instantiated. Subclasses provide concrete implementations. It supports code reuse and enforces a design contract.
Question 57
What is the purpose of the “super” keyword in Java-like languages?
  • (A) Refers to the superclass in inheritance
  • (B) Creates a new object instance
  • (C) Defines a new class
  • (D) Handles exceptions
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
super accesses superclass members or invokes its constructor. It resolves member shadowing and enables proper initialization in inheritance chains. Useful for extending behavior while reusing base logic.
Question 58
Which of the following best defines a class?
  • (A) An instance of an object
  • (B) A blueprint for creating objects
  • (C) A variable holding data
  • (D) A function with a return value
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
A class encapsulates data (fields) and behavior (methods) as a reusable blueprint. Objects are concrete instances created from the class. This abstraction supports modularity and reuse.
Question 59
Which principle ensures that only essential information is visible to the outside world?
  • (A) Polymorphism
  • (B) Information hiding
  • (C) Encapsulation
  • (D) Abstraction
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Information hiding conceals internal implementation details behind stable interfaces. Clients depend only on what is necessary, improving maintainability and safety. Encapsulation enables it; abstraction complements it conceptually.
Question 60
What is the main purpose of inheritance in OOP?
  • (A) To create instances of classes
  • (B) To prevent data abstraction
  • (C) To establish a parent-child relationship between classes
  • (D) To define exceptions
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Inheritance lets a class acquire properties and behaviors of another, enabling reuse and hierarchy. It helps model “is-a” relationships and supports polymorphism. Proper design avoids tight coupling and fragile bases.
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Question 61
In multiprogramming with fixed partitions, if a process requires more memory than is available in a partition, it may lead to:
  • (A) Fragmentation
  • (B) Deadlock
  • (C) Priority inversion
  • (D) Starvation
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Fixed partitioning splits memory into predetermined blocks. When a program doesn’t fit any partition, space elsewhere goes unused, and poor fits cause wasted gaps. This is classic external fragmentation; dynamic schemes reduce this problem.
Question 62
The purpose of a page table in a paging system is to:
  • (A) Store pages of memory
  • (B) Manage input/output operations
  • (C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses
  • (D) Store program instructions
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
The MMU uses the page table to map a process’s virtual page numbers to physical frames. Caching this mapping in a TLB speeds up translation. This indirection enables isolation, relocation, and protection.
Question 63
The primary goal of load control is to:
  • (A) Prevent processes from running concurrently
  • (B) Avoid context switching between processes
  • (C) Ensure that CPU time is evenly distributed among processes
  • (D) Maximize the usage of virtual memory
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
Load control regulates the degree of multiprogramming so the scheduler can share CPU fairly. By avoiding overload and thrashing, overall responsiveness improves. It balances throughput and fairness across runnable jobs.
Question 64
The I/O subsystem in an operating system is responsible for:
  • (A) Allocating memory for processes
  • (B) Managing the file system
  • (C) Managing I/O operations between processes and I/O devices
  • (D) Allocating CPU time to processes
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
The I/O subsystem abstracts device specifics, handles buffering, caching, and scheduling. Drivers and interrupts provide efficient communication with peripherals. File systems build on block I/O; CPU scheduling is separate.
Question 65
File manipulation operations in an operating system include:
  • (A) Allocating memory to files
  • (B) Assigning file names to processes
  • (C) Loading files into CPU registers
  • (D) Reading, writing, and modifying file content
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
Core file operations are create/open, read/write/append, rename, and delete. The OS enforces permissions and consistency while apps use system calls. Register loading is unrelated to file manipulation.
Question 66
A formal model of protection in an operating system provides:
  • (A) A mathematical framework for analyzing resource allocation
  • (B) Guidelines for designing user interfaces
  • (C) Methods for optimizing memory management
  • (D) Techniques for improving CPU utilization
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Formal protection models specify subjects, objects, and rights with rigorous semantics. They allow verification of safety properties and policy enforcement. Examples include the Bell–LaPadula and Biba integrity models.
Question 67
A threaded binary tree is a binary tree in which:
  • (A) Each node has two children
  • (B) Each node has at most one child
  • (C) Each node is connected to its parent
  • (D) Each node has a thread connecting it to its predecessor or successor
✅ Correct Answer: (D)
Threads replace null pointers with links to inorder predecessor/successor. This supports traversal without recursion or an auxiliary stack. It saves time/space at the cost of extra link maintenance.
Question 68
The process of removing recursion involves replacing recursive function calls with:
  • (A) More recursive function calls
  • (B) Loops
  • (C) Additional memory allocation
  • (D) Non-recursive function calls
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Iterative solutions use loops, often with an explicit stack simulating call frames. Tail recursion can be converted directly into loops by compilers or by hand. This avoids call overhead and can improve performance.
Question 69
In the Tower of Hanoi problem with “n” disks, how many moves are required to solve the problem?
  • (A) n
  • (B) 2n
  • (C) 2^n – 1
  • (D) 2^n
✅ Correct Answer: (C)
The recurrence T(n)=2T(n−1)+1 solves to T(n)=2^n−1. Each step moves the top n−1 disks twice around the largest disk. The exponential growth reflects duplicated subproblems at each level.
Question 70
Which collision resolution technique places collided elements in the next available empty slot in the hash table?
  • (A) Linear probing
  • (B) Quadratic probing
  • (C) Separate chaining
  • (D) Double hashing
✅ Correct Answer: (A)
Linear probing linearly scans subsequent slots until a free one is found. It’s cache-friendly but prone to primary clustering. Quadratic probing and double hashing reduce clustering differently.
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